Published: Wednesday, February 7, 2007
Blog Entry # 257.
Dick Cavett:
President George W. Bush (# 43)'s limitations in speaking the English language properly has been well known for many years. Why, then, did it not keep him from being elected to the White House? Twice! Most especially, when both of his opponents were so highly articulate?
In 1964, the U.S. population had a literacy rate of 98+%. It is, now, between 60-65%, if that.
Popularity, the kind which drives election outcomes, always appeals to the "least common denominator" or that which is most common in the society or culture. With declining literacy rates, how much more likely will well-spoken people, like Al Gore and John Kerry, be able to appeal to the numeric majority. Not much! In my estimation.
Many of his malapropisms can be hilarious. Just not to his detractors and with those who may disagree with him. Sometime he "presents" as a kind of Norm Crosby clone. With so much broadcast media being focused on him, sometimes I think, the public just wants to be entertained.
In the end, most people don't like to be constantly exposed to people who do or try to make them feel as though they may be inferior. Al Gore, John Kerry and Hillary Clinton have this affect on most Americans today. That would not have been the case in 1964 when more Americans valued and were striving to improve their own language skills. President Bush is unable to make anyone feel inferior. Quite the opposite, in fact. Thereby, revealing the secret of his appeal.
America, most probably, will never have another President like John F. Kennedy. Where all of his public utterances were thoughtful, spare, original and fresh. Making them seem to be all the more momentous and memorable. Gore, Kerry and Hillary Clinton never stop talking and bore the daylights out of everyone who can hear them. President Bush might do the same but he livens up his speeches with so many verbal "pratfalls".
Edward J. Bradley, Sr.
Albany, New York
Blog Entry # 427.
February 7th, 2007 12:03 pm
Dick,
I, too, enjoyed your program every day when I was in my 20s with three toddlers vying for my attention. Since then, I’ve always loved the happy Bernstein Overture to Candide.
I hope you will answer some of our (322 ’till this moment!) posts’ questions and comments, such as
#212 Since when is it pretentious to say ‘an historic . . .’?
#216 She means ‘credible’ instead of ‘incredulous’. (Or maybe she was being facetious.)
#222 Advertising writers for food containers are guilty of such wording as ‘less calories’ instead of ‘fewer calories’.
#275 In the fifth paragraph, shouldn’t the word be ‘effect’, instead of ‘affect’?
[Forgot which comment number] What IS the best way to speak or write a gender-neutral antecedent without sounding awkward or pretentious?
Hope to hear from you again on some of these and other points.
Sally Rose
Seattle
— Posted by Sally Rose Weir
Blog Entry # 482.
Dick Cavett:
In response to #427's comment on # 275's use of the word "affect" in place of "effect".
It was a struggle, as usual, to decide which of these 2 words was the best and most appropriate to use.
While I may be mistaken, my sense is:
The word "effect" pertains to outwardly observable impact(s) on or outcome(s) from force(s) applied to inanimate object(s).
The word "affect" pertains to an impact on a person's emotions and/or thinking. In response to stimulus. In this case, hearing the way in which another may speak the English language. How the "affected" person may, outwardly, react or respond is the "effect" or "outcome".
Because my reference was to people (and not to inanimate objects), my thought was that use of the word "affect" was more appropriate in this case. In other words, with use of the word "affect", the word "effect" is to be understood as being part of the meaning conveyed. Maybe not.
By the omission of just one word, so many more words must be written! An English language lesson for all of us.
Most probably, it would have been most and more appropriate for me to have used both words to describe both the "affect" and "effect" on voters. With "affect" representing the inner emotional and cognitive reaction(s) of one or more voter(s). With "effect" being the actual vote each voter may cast, in response. Thereby, determining the "outcome" of the election.
Of course, I could be wrong. What do you think?
Happy trails,
Edward J. Bradley, Sr.
Albany, New York



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